electroboy
Member level 5
hello.. i have a doubt in ideal opamp analysis.. i have attached the word document for better establishment of my question.. please see it...
my question is "why Vn approaches Vp when gain is infinity and not the vice versa ?" The book doesn't state it clearly ... i have taken it from OPamp desigh & analog ICs by franco... please answer my question.. thanks in advance...
my question is "why Vn approaches Vp when gain is infinity and not the vice versa ?" The book doesn't state it clearly ... i have taken it from OPamp desigh & analog ICs by franco... please answer my question.. thanks in advance...
Attachments
Last edited: