Why this result holds even if M0 and M3 suffer from body effect? (Razavi book)

[wjxcom]

Hi, all: I have a question when I read the book writed by Razavi. In the book, in page 140, there have a sentense in the last paragraph: Thus, if (w/l)3/(w/l)0=(w/l)2/(w/l)1, then VGS0=VGS3, VX=VY. Note that this result holds even if M0 and M3 suffer from body effect.

I do not know why when (w/l)3/(w/l)0=(w/l)2/(w/l)1, then VGS0=VGS3, VX=VY. and I want to know why this result holds even if M0 and M3 suffer from body effect?

 

[Alles Gute]

Re: Ask a question

sorry but just some suggestion.
you can make your title more meaningful. Almost everyone here makes a post becouse he/she want to 'Ask a question'.
also, it'll be better to figure out the edition of the book you used. Normally there is different content for different version in the same page