frank_8017
Newbie level 3
Hi,
The following just occurred to me:
If theorical white noise is defined as a psd diagram of constant intensity (i.e -100dBm/Hz) throughout the infinite spectrum of frequencies,
then,
according to the duality principle of Fourier transforms, its equivalent time-function will be a dirac at t=0 (of amplitude proportionnal to the constant intensity mentionned above).
This does NOT make any sense!
This implies that white noise will have avery strong impact on a signal at t=0, but will leave it unpertubed a t>0.
I know I must be doing something wrong because this means that theoretical white noise is not much of a bother at t>0.
Can someone explain to me why is my reasonning wrong?
Regards
-Frank
The following just occurred to me:
If theorical white noise is defined as a psd diagram of constant intensity (i.e -100dBm/Hz) throughout the infinite spectrum of frequencies,
then,
according to the duality principle of Fourier transforms, its equivalent time-function will be a dirac at t=0 (of amplitude proportionnal to the constant intensity mentionned above).
This does NOT make any sense!
This implies that white noise will have avery strong impact on a signal at t=0, but will leave it unpertubed a t>0.
I know I must be doing something wrong because this means that theoretical white noise is not much of a bother at t>0.
Can someone explain to me why is my reasonning wrong?
Regards
-Frank