Continue to Site

Welcome to EDAboard.com

Welcome to our site! EDAboard.com is an international Electronics Discussion Forum focused on EDA software, circuits, schematics, books, theory, papers, asic, pld, 8051, DSP, Network, RF, Analog Design, PCB, Service Manuals... and a whole lot more! To participate you need to register. Registration is free. Click here to register now.

When Fourier series coeficient 1 is zero

Status
Not open for further replies.

Highlander-SP

Member level 3
Member level 3
Joined
Sep 21, 2005
Messages
64
Helped
0
Reputation
0
Reaction score
0
Trophy points
1,286
Activity points
1,884
If I have a function that the coeficients a0=0; an=0; b1=0 and b2, b3, ..., bn ≠ 0
may I have to consider that the fundamental is b2?
 

what do u mean by b2 is fundamental. pls be precise with ur question

thnx

purna!
 

fourier series
f = a0 + ∑[an cos(n wo t) + bn sin(n wo t)]
a0 = average or dc value of the function
a1,b1 = coefficients of the fundamental harmonic (wo)
a2,b2 = coefficients of the second harmonic (2×wo)
.... etc

mas
 

No - in something like music, the fundimental is the frequency which all the other harmonics are integer multiples of.
If all the odd b coefficients were 0, and b2,b4... were not zero, the answer would be yes.

I think your fundimental is given by b1, even though its amplitude is zero.
(like a signal with a suppressed carrier - there is no carrier, but the remaining signal implies it)

In addition (music again) - distortion will cause intermods, and b1 will surface.
 

Status
Not open for further replies.

Similar threads

Part and Inventory Search

Welcome to EDABoard.com

Sponsor

Back
Top