dot4
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......Your transformer has its secondary winding labeled as .0025, so I add a coil with value 2.5 mH. (This simulator allows me to input a Henry value in the primary, but not the secondary.).....
.... I'm wodering what causes input current drop in attached circuit at around 300 Hz.
I know it is caused by capacitive loading...
Hey brad !!I finally installed your simulator and checked it out too. Just to let you know that the transformer model there has a primary inductance AND a turns ratio settable.
So if we know both the primary & secondary inductance values, we can find the turns ratio as SQRT(Isec/ Ipri). Hope this helps in your future simulations !!
Oh yes... doesn't the graph show current going to ZERO in primary at ~300Hz ??
Yes, this is helpful. Since there is no box where we can type in a Henry value for the secondary, I could instead have input a turns ratio... If I had known to look up the formula which derives one from the other.
It's a gap in my knowledge of transformer math.
Now I have drawn the initial schematic in the simulator, including the transformer.
Your formula above yields a turns ratio of 6.3:1 in the transformer.
.1 / .0025 = 40
Take sq. rt = 6.3.
The results agree with the OP. The scope trace shows a drop in primary current at 300 Hz. However there is no corresponding drop (or rise) in the secondary.
Since I observed the secondary by itself resonating at 300 Hz, we would naturally expect to see this reflected in the scope trace somehow.
However both sides continue to rise with frequency.
Screenshot is in the attachment:
i suspect this is because of the nature of the LC in resonance.... !!
When a lossless LC are resonating, the currents can be very large, but there is no net gain or loss from the tank circuit. The energy simply changes hands between the inductor & capacitor. This is probably why there is NO NEED for any energy input from the primary side - and current drops very low.
The level of this current will prob'ly be determined by the non-ideality of the tank in our circuit, where the 0.37 & 0.1 & 1M resistors are also included, modified by the trafo turns ratio.
This is why the current in the pRImARY drops, but not in the secondary.
does that make sense ?
cheers!
Imho your output (secondary) side circuit can be simplified to just the transformer L (2.5mH) in series with the dominating elements of the 2 capacitors in series. Once you see this, you will realise that this is a simple series LC, which has a resonant freq of ~330Hz. Now being in series, at the resonance the impedance is large (infinite?), and limited only by the 1M resistor which then controls the minimum current.
Or something like this. I think, the setup can be better described as a load capacitor connected in parallel to the transformer magnetizing inductance, resulting in the observed high input impedance in resonance.Imho your output (secondary) side circuit can be simplified to just the transformer L (2.5mH) in series with the dominating elements of the 2 capacitors in series. Once you see this, you will realise that this is a simple series LC, which has a resonant freq of ~330Hz. Now being in series, at the resonance the impedance is large (infinite?), and limited only by the 1M resistor which then controls the minimum current.
Yes. In fact, it's a parallel resonance setup. Transformer leakage inductance can create series resonance with capacitive load, but Ls is assumed zero in the circuit.Is this really true? in series resonance, the current should be maximum because the reactance parts of the impedance cancel each other out.
How do you simulate only the secondary side? I mean, where to put an voltage source.
I simulated the attached circuit with the given response.
**broken link removed****broken link removed**
Thanks
Your simulation circuit is completely different from the original setup.There was no apparent reason for the primary loop to cause the attenuation at 300 Hz.
Below is a screenshot of my simulation of the secondary loop only.
It's as simple as sending a frequency sweep through it, and measuring current.
This style better clarifies the parallel resonance structure, I think.
https://www.falstad.com/circuit/#$+...0.0+800.0+1.0+0.1 o+17+64+0+43+5.0+0.05+0+-1
nomenclature is irrelevant.
Your simulation circuit is completely different from the original setup.
As said, the original circuit involves a parallel resonance.
If I calculate the reactance only of the dominant 1m capacitor at 300 Hz, it is 0.53 ohm.
After impedance transformation with square of turns ratio I end up with 21 ohms.
I sense flaws in this approach
But what if we want to analyze and explain it via impedance transformation. Is it possible?
Yes, that's right. My simulation setup was primarly thought as a comment to post #9, which - in my opinion - doesn't correspond to the original problem. I discovered later that you had posted the same circuit.Your results match my results (post #4) of my simulation of the original setup.
But what if we want to analyze and explain it via impedance transformation. Is it possible?
If I calculate the reactance only of the dominant 1m capacitor at 300 Hz, it is 0.53 ohm.
After impedance transformation with square of turns ratio I end up with 21 ohms.
I sense flaws in this approach
...In this transformed version, the parallel resonance nature of the circuit is quite obvious, I think.
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