I applied the charge balance equation and arrived at the following conclusions,
When p1=1 & p2 =0,
Q1=vin*C1, Q2 =0
When p2 =1 & p1 =0,
Q1’ = (0-vn)*C1 = -vref*C1, as vn = vref because of virtual ground.
Q2’ = (vout-vn)*C2 = (vout-vref)*C2
Applying charge balancing,
Q1+Q2 = Q1’+Q2’
Vin*C1 = -vref*C1 + (vout-vref)*C2
vout*C2 = vin*C1 + vref*C1 + vref*C2
vout = (C1/C2)*vin + (1+C1/C2)*vref
Before the start of the integration, vout_intial = vref.
Thus the integrating step is,
vout – vout_initial = (C1/C2) * vin + (C1/C2) * vref
Integrating step =
(C1/C2) * (vin + vref)
Now, when vp = vref,
When p1=1 & p2 =0,
Q1=vin*C1, Q2 =0
When p2 =1 & p1 =0,
Q1’ = (0-vn)*C1 = -vref*C1, as vn = vref because of virtual ground.
Q2’ = (vout-vn)*C2 = (vout-vref)*C2
Applying charge balancing,
Q1+Q2 = Q1’+Q2’
Vin*C1 = -vref*C1 + (vout-vref)*C2
vout*C2 = vin*C1 + vref*C1 + vref*C2
vout = (C1/C2)*vin + (1+C1/C2)*vref
Before the start of the integration, vout_intial = vref.
Thus the integrating step is,
vout – vout_initial =
(C1/C2) * vin + (C1/C2) * vref
Integrating step = (C1/C2) * (vin + vref)
With the vref as the opamp input reference, indeed the integrating step will be (C1/C2)*(vin+vref). From the equations it becomes clear. But still are there any intuitive explanations why the vref is coming in the integrating factor?