for help about IFFT!
After a Fourier transform, any function applied to the frequency domain result, which leaves a non-real IFFT cannot be physically realized.
I have run across MANY instances where the time origin of the original signal has been the culprit of what you my have run across.
(i.e. a textbook FFT integrates from 0 to N-1, due solely to the algorithm, but in most cases it would have been preferred to be integrated from (1-N)/2 to (N-1)/2)
Do you have a concrete function (including nonlinear ones) in particular that illustrates your point?
(by the way, the question you asked is deceptively fascinating)
Added after 8 minutes:
(I'll try to remember tomorrow at work)
I have a reference that talks about the baseband (complex) representation of real signals.
That allows you to consider a wider class of signals.
I rarely work with real signals (in radar) any more.
The first thing to do is make them complex.