radiohead
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Hi,
I try to define the power of the integrated 1/f noise of a transistor.
\[P = \int\limits_{fa}^{fb} {\frac{{P_{1Hz} }}{f}} df = \left| {\ln f}\right|_{fa}^{fb} = \ln \left( {\frac{{fb}}{{fa}}} \right)\]
Now, when we choose fb the corner frequency of the 1/f noise, and fa equal to 0Hz, the integral does not converge any more. This physically is not correct, around DC there simply is no power but the 1/f formula predicts it to be infinite. Is there some low frequency corner where the noise spectrum flattens again?
PS: Damn these tex formulas. You never get them straigth from the first time
I try to define the power of the integrated 1/f noise of a transistor.
\[P = \int\limits_{fa}^{fb} {\frac{{P_{1Hz} }}{f}} df = \left| {\ln f}\right|_{fa}^{fb} = \ln \left( {\frac{{fb}}{{fa}}} \right)\]
Now, when we choose fb the corner frequency of the 1/f noise, and fa equal to 0Hz, the integral does not converge any more. This physically is not correct, around DC there simply is no power but the 1/f formula predicts it to be infinite. Is there some low frequency corner where the noise spectrum flattens again?
PS: Damn these tex formulas. You never get them straigth from the first time
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