Plz simple problem, but i need it [45point or more]

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Nab

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hello,

plz it's a small problem , but i need it , it's very important for me and very urgent [45point or more as you like]

i have to give the proof of this

for p≠0, 2π, 4π, ... and q≠0, 2π, 4π, ...

y(p,q) = (1/N) Σ exp ^{i(pl+ql²)} = 0 when N goes to infinity ( l goes from 0 to N-1)
In latex
y(p,q)=\frac{1}{N} \sum^{N-1}_{l=0} e^{i(pl+ql^{2})}=0 when N goes to infinity



if you can not plz just this
for q≠0, 2π, 4π, ...

y(q) = (1/N) Σ exp ^{iq²)} = 0 when N goes to infinity ( l goes from 0 to N-1)


in latex
y(q)=\frac{1}{N} \sum^{N-1}_{l=0} e^{i(ql^{2})}=0 when N goes to infinity

here is my email nabkorso (at) gmail (dot) com

THANK YOU THANK YOU THANK YOU
 

what is pl and ql in your equation?
can you upload an image of your equation?
 

yup, plz post some equation as image.

Added after 30 seconds:

or rather just the equation
 

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