danilorj
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Hey guys
I'm reading an article that I'm sending attached and I have one doubt. In eq. (17) it is pointed out that
$i_{ca1}=(T_{a2}-T_{a1})I_{as}$
and in eq. (18) it is said that using a moving average technique eq. (17) can be written as
$I_{ca1}=(d_{T_{a2}}-d_{T_{a1}})I_{as}$
I didn't understand this moving average technique and why it can be written this way using the modulating waveform of each switch.
Can you explain?
I'm reading an article that I'm sending attached and I have one doubt. In eq. (17) it is pointed out that
$i_{ca1}=(T_{a2}-T_{a1})I_{as}$
and in eq. (18) it is said that using a moving average technique eq. (17) can be written as
$I_{ca1}=(d_{T_{a2}}-d_{T_{a1}})I_{as}$
I didn't understand this moving average technique and why it can be written this way using the modulating waveform of each switch.
Can you explain?