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I don't understand your question. :-?thank u...
now pls help me with this very basic concept....
when both the amplifiers are same in opamp why one treats as positive and another as negative...?
in IC 741 opamp....
pin 2 ic -ve and 3 is +ve...
both give the same o/p...k...
bt y +ve n _ve thr???
I see various basic flaws in the statement.There is difference in close loop gain and loop gain.For an inverting op amp configuration the circuit bandwidth is equal to the op amp gain-bandwidth product divided by 1 plus the closed loop gain. Thus, for example, if the op amp GBW is 1MHz and the inverting closed loop gain was 1, the circuit bandwidth would be 1MHz / (1+1) = 500KHz.