Hi all,
In my previous post I made the following statement:
Now, suppose that for some reason there is a perturbation like an instantaneous small increase of the phase lag (equivalent to increasing delay) in the active device. Then, the frequency of that self-sustained oscillation has tendency to be lower (delay increases -> longer period).
It was observed that what I've highlighted needs a justification. I'll try to explain it now.
It can be useful to think in the pictorial view of a phasor. Let's take the possible self-sustained oscillation at angular frequency ω
0 (where the two first conditions are met) as the reference for the phasor.
Let's consider first a perturbation producing a small
advance in the phase. It can be a small increase of the phase lead, or added noise with a positive quadrature component. The phase advances some amount (say δφ) taking for it some time (say δt). This counterclockwise rotation of the phasor corresponds to an increase in angular frequency by an (average) amount Δω=δφ/δt .
If the transfer function of the loop has a positive phase vs. frequency slope, then at ω
0+Δω it has a lead greater than at ω
0, and the phasor advances its phase even more and more. Frequency increases moving away from the point of (possible) self-sustained oscillation.
If the perturbation produces (like in the example of the quote) a phase lag instead of an advance, then δφ and consequently Δω are negative, and the system goes away with a clockwise rotation of the phasor.
Instead, if the slope dφ/dω is negative, the phase characteristic makes that the phasor goes always towards its equilibrium point.
We can see the analogy with an inverted pendulum that losses its equilirium point for any small perurbation acting in any sense, and a regular pendulum that has a stable equilibrium.
I hope this is more clear now.
Regards
Z