abc_de
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Theoretically possible.Is vfd increment each frequency 0> 1> 2> 3 ....49> 50hz in 10msec.
I think it says, that the resolution of acceleration time setting is 10 ms. You could set 10,00 seconds or you can set 10,01 seconds acceleration time. 10 ms resolution is good. Even 1 second resolution would be good enough for most applications. I assume you noticed that factory setting is 10 seconds->they are not saying that 10 ms acceleration time setting makes sense.My doubt is that what this parameter says..
No load current requires that there is no load on the motor and the motor speed is constant. During acceleration, speed is not constant and we store energy to motor+load inertia. That's why it is necessary to use longer acceleration time with higher inertia load.But when driven with vfd its around 2amps under no load means no high starting current.
We don't know how the ramp is implemented. At least the idea of running each integer frequency is not possible. One cycle of 1 Hz takes 1 second and we should get to 50 Hz in 10 ms. Less than 1 second can't make 1 Hz. The ramp has to be some sort of frequency sweep. This is the case also for 10 second ramp time. How many discrete frequency steps there are during 10 ms? Maximum amount of discrete steps is determined by carrier frequency. If the carrier is 10 kHz, there is 10 kHz x 0,01 = 100 semiconductor switching during 10 ms. This means the motor sees maximum 100 different steps.I want to know if i choose 10msec acceleration time then how vfd apply frequency. Vfd start from 0hz and target frequency is 50hz.
Is vfd increment each frequency 0> 1> 2> 3 ....49> 50hz in 10msec.
minimum acceleration time is .01(10msec) what it does mean...
can motor accelerate 0HZ to 50HZ within 10msec...
May be here is some hidden concept....