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@LvW: Simple question to prove or disprove your assumption: Which voltage level will be set through the feedback network, and why? In case of doubt, I'm referring to IC1B in figure 1-1, post #1.I think, that's not correct. The circuit, of course, is NOT floating. The dc bias is provided (for both input terminals) through the feeedback network.
KerimF: And what is amazing in the circuit, is that IC1B is floating, it has no DC bias at all
I think, that's not correct. The circuit, of course, is NOT floating. The dc bias is provided (for both input terminals) through the feeedback network.
KerimF, another comment: I am not sure if your simulation arrangement (and the corresponding results) are really helpful since you have suppressed R3=10 k (see the original drawing).
@KerimF: It would be useful for others, if you can post the zipped *.asc file of your LTSpice simulation.
Please if you are referring to IC1B, its output (pin 7) is floating since there is no DC path to any of its two inputs (Pin 6 and pin 5). Let me agree with you and ask what is the DC voltage of pin 7 ?
I guess you refer to R3 belonging to the next stage which is not considered yet in my analysis. The circuit around IC1B could be viewed as a load to IC1A opamp. But its loading effect is practically negligible if we remember that the internal resistance (impedance) of an opamp is relatively very small (a few ohms for example, if not less).
Answers....yes, may be. But explanations?I agree with you. Most answers could be found on the internet.
ok guys, I had spent almost 1 day to do the nodal analysis with my coursemate...here's the link, 1st and 2nd Circuit Block Analysis.pdf ...
tell me if we had made any mistake , thanks alot...
ok guys, I had spent almost 1 day to do the nodal analysis with my coursemate...here's the link, 1st and 2nd Circuit Block Analysis.pdf ...
tell me if we had made any mistake , thanks alot...
or can you try to help me derive ? becuz I had tried many times, and still cannot end up with Vout/Vin = -(1-sRC2)/((1+sRC2) >.<
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