LvW
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I believe you can make an oscillator with non-ideal opamps. I'm not really sure what your question is.
No!, Barkhausen's criterion have 2 condition:
1. Gain is >=1 and phase is 0/180 degree. that means positive feed back.
If Ideal opamp is having unity gain even though it is not able to oscillate untill its gives, 0/180 degree of phase shift.
Hope you can get my explanation.
Don't you mean 180 degree phase shift? zero degree phase shift won't oscillate.so case 1:
Ideal opamp with,
gain >/= 1 and 0 degree phase: will oscillate;
Don't you mean 180 degree phase shift? zero degree phase shift won't oscillate.
Back to the original question, you've only stated that your real opamp has unity gain, but you haven't specified the feedback phaseshift. Also, since the other part of the requirement for oscillation is equal-or-greater than gain of 1, if your real opamp circuit is unity gain even a tiny change in gain (below unity) will stop oscillation. In your simulation if you specify G=1, it will be EXACTLY 1; that's not the case in the real world.
In which sense the sign doesn't matter? Without doubt in the sense, that you can calculate a solution with consistent node voltages. But not necessarily in the sense, that the solution can be implemented in a functional analog circuit.recall that a/(1+ab) really doesn't matter on the sign once the open loop gain is large enough
circuit 1: recall that a/(1+ab) really doesn't matter on the sign once the open loop gain is large enough (despite polarity). a model that uses this equation without checking for any boundary conditions will give "correct" linear behavior even when connected backwards... eg 1000/(1000+1) ~= -1000/(-1000+1).
circuit 2: I have to guess the same issue.
Yes you are right, I confused two different setups. Even a very high GBW makes the OP immediately jump out of it's pseudo bias point.I don't think so. Limited GBW means time delay within the feedback loop leading to realistic results (no stable operating point, output saturation for both circuits)
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