Including the coupling coefficient k in the equations
y1'' + k*y2'' + ω^2 * y1 =0
k*y1'' + y2'' + ω^2 * y2 =0
Adding and substracting both equations
(1+k)*(y1+y2)'' + ω^2 *(y1+y2) = (1+k)*U1'' + ω^2 *U1 = 0
(1-k)*(y1-y2)'' + ω^2 *(y1-y2) = (1-k)*U2'' + ω^2 *U2 = 0
Then, the solutions are trivials.
U1 = y1+y2 : general sinewave of frequency w/sqrt(1+k)
U2 = y1-y2 : general sinewave of frequency w/sqrt(1-k)
--> y1 = (U1+U2)/2 and y2 = (U1-U2)/2
Is easy to see what when k-->1 or k-->-1 , one natural frequency -->w/sqrt(2) and the other goes to infinity.
In real circuits, the high frequency vanish as k goes close to +/-1 due the losses.
The image is a simulation with 0.1 ohm of windings resistance for k = 0.995 and k=0.9999
At k=+/-1 with no losses you have a singularity: Infinite current at infinite frequency.