By nature of a two-stage amplifier. It's neither feasible nor useful to bias the first stage output to Vdd/2. The bias point of the first stage is commanded by Vth of the second stage transistors.but the first stage was not fixed ......why does this happen
By nature of a two-stage amplifier. It's neither feasible nor useful to bias the first stage output to Vdd/2. The bias point of the first stage is commanded by Vth of the second stage transistors.
Output of the first stage will not be fixed to 0.6. First stage output is determined by the Vsg of the PMOS transistors M8 and M9. In other words, common mode feedback will ensure that the output of the first stage is such that current through M9 (M8) is exactly equal to current through M16 (M18). You can adjust the first stage voltage by changing the W/L ratio of M8 and M9.
You'll have to adjust the bias current either of first or second stage to get 0.6V bias at the first stage output. But what is it good for?
Swing at the first stage is very small. So biasing the common mode of the first stage to 0.6V is not necessary.I have one more question please, do I have to adjust the W/L ratios at the first stage to maintain the middle node (Vo_r) at 0.6 or it is useless.
. Appart from this point, a gain of 10e5 for the CFMB error amp seems completely unrealistic.
This CMFB loop has 3 stages which tend to make it unstable. Keep reducing the the transconductance of vccs used. Also reduce the value of common mode sensing resistors. Try using a compensating caps between cmfb1 and vo_l, cmfb1 and vo_r.
The low frequency loop gain phase isn't plausible. Looks like an erroneous "measurement" at first sight.error amp seems completely unrealistic.
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