boylesg
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I would just like some one to confirm whether or not 1/(2PifC) and 2PifL of close enough approximations for impendence with a DC square wave.
Or, if this is not the case, what are the correct formula
I.E. So that I can then use Ohm's law to calculate the current....at least roughly.
Or, if this is not the case, what are the correct formula
I.E. So that I can then use Ohm's law to calculate the current....at least roughly.