analog_fever
Junior Member level 3
beta multiplier
I am a beginner to voltage reference design and I have a very basic
probably dumb question regarding low-power reference design discussed in
Jacob baker's book (figure shown).
In the book he explains that, for example, if Vreg
is greater than the the drain voltage of M1 (VbiasN), it
increases the output voltage of the opamp, which in turn
decreases the current through both M4 and M3 by the same amount
(because of symmetry).
Now the confusion I have is - Is not the opamp supposed to decrease
the difference between Vreg and VbiasN? How does it accomplish
this if reduces Vreg and VbiasN by the same amount? We want Vreg
and VbiasN to be equal for the reference to work, right?
I know that a good opamp tries to minimize its input offset, but
I am having trouble in understanding intuitively how the opamp
actually works in this circuit.
I am a beginner to voltage reference design and I have a very basic
probably dumb question regarding low-power reference design discussed in
Jacob baker's book (figure shown).
In the book he explains that, for example, if Vreg
is greater than the the drain voltage of M1 (VbiasN), it
increases the output voltage of the opamp, which in turn
decreases the current through both M4 and M3 by the same amount
(because of symmetry).
Now the confusion I have is - Is not the opamp supposed to decrease
the difference between Vreg and VbiasN? How does it accomplish
this if reduces Vreg and VbiasN by the same amount? We want Vreg
and VbiasN to be equal for the reference to work, right?
I know that a good opamp tries to minimize its input offset, but
I am having trouble in understanding intuitively how the opamp
actually works in this circuit.