harry456
Member level 1
I read a paper in that is was mentioned that an CW with a peak of p=xdBm has the same effect on a ic than a modulated signal with peaks (all peaks have the same power as the cw signal). Is is possible? (the power of modulated signal would be much larger than that of the cw signal).
Would be nice if someone could post a source that proves this "thesis".
Would be nice if someone could post a source that proves this "thesis".