appsee
Newbie level 3
During startup the clamp capacitor is gradually built up to Vin/(1-D) assuming a low-side active clamp. I assume the clamp capacitor is being charged with the magnetizing current of the transformer.
During startup, the magnetizing current's up slope should exceed the down slope. Otherwise, the clamp capacitor's voltage would never rise to Vin(1-D). So during startup, the magnetizing is ramping up to some bias level. It's only when Vclamp = Vin/(1-D) does the magnetizing current have equal up and down slopes.
If this is the case, why do all analysis show that the bias level of the magnetizing current is 0 for active clamp forward converters?
During startup, the magnetizing current's up slope should exceed the down slope. Otherwise, the clamp capacitor's voltage would never rise to Vin(1-D). So during startup, the magnetizing is ramping up to some bias level. It's only when Vclamp = Vin/(1-D) does the magnetizing current have equal up and down slopes.
If this is the case, why do all analysis show that the bias level of the magnetizing current is 0 for active clamp forward converters?