Pld4me
Junior Member level 1
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1 hz = 32.768 khz * 2^15
While I understand that they are divisible by powers of 2, I find it hard to believe that they are used exclusively to divide down to 1Hz (2^15).
I would think that with inherant silicon delays in whatever you use to divide the signal down to 1Hz that it would be wiser to just use a 1Hz oscillator.
Can someone shed some light on this for me?
While I understand that they are divisible by powers of 2, I find it hard to believe that they are used exclusively to divide down to 1Hz (2^15).
I would think that with inherant silicon delays in whatever you use to divide the signal down to 1Hz that it would be wiser to just use a 1Hz oscillator.
Can someone shed some light on this for me?