Before asking the question I would like to attach the image of the BGR regarding which I have some doubts.
From what I have read, due to the high gain of the op-amp, the two inputs of the op-amp "Va and Vb" are always at an equal potential such that the PTAT current flows across R1. But if the potential at the two inputs is equal then shouldn't the output of the opamp be 0 (or very close to it) as V0 = Av*(Vb- Va). I know this might be a silly question but it is haunting me for a few days.
From what I have read, due to the high gain of the op-amp, the two inputs of the op-amp "Va and Vb" are always at an equal potential such that the PTAT current flows across R1. But if the potential at the two inputs is equal then shouldn't the output of the opamp be 0 (or very close to it) as V0 = Av*(Vb- Va). I know this might be a silly question but it is haunting me for a few days.
