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That is not a cite of Miller's theorem. By cite, I mean a scholarly reference, such as the one I provided. Can you provide a cite that defines it differently? Mind you, I'm not asking for Jasmin's theorem.
I also fail to see how your description defines the location of the zero, as defined in...
If you solve the transfer function by using network analysis, you will get the poles and the zero. The problem as I understand it is that Miller's theorem completely decouples the input and output circuits, ignoring the fact that there is an alternate path around the amplifier which creates the...
Why are you people nitpicking about exact gain? That has little bearing on the presence of a zero in the transfer function that is not accounted for in Miller's theorem.
Added after 1 minutes:
Excellent explanation!
Here is a quote from a presentation called **broken link removed**.
The point I was making in my previous post is that if the amplifier output impedance is zero, this RHP zero disappears. However, this may not be the reason you do not see the zero in your simplified model. I think the Miller...
If I understand you correctly, I think you are assuming the output resistance of your amplifier is zero ohms. Finite output resistance will give you a zero in the frequency response.
No, the ON resistance of MOSFETs has a positive temperature coefficient, so parallel MOSFETs are not susceptible to current hogging and subsequent thermal runaway. As one starts to get hot, its resistance goes up and forces other devices to take more of the load.
Linear Technology's SwitcherCAD III is free and uncastrated (as opposed to most student and demo versions of commercially-available simulators). I have used it for years, and it very good.
I think that the source is connected to a bus that swings between 0V and 3.3V. The drain is connected to a bus that swings 0V to 5V. The gate is connected to 3.3V. I believe there are mosfets with guaranteed Rds at Vgs=3.3V, so this basically acts like a common gate amplifier, only in the...
Excellent and thorough answer, Laktronics!
EDIT: i just realized that the gain-bandwidth product of LM324 is 1MHz. At 40kHz, the gain will only be about 25, not 101 as calculated. The circuit should use an op amp with a GBW of at least 10MHz to realize something close to the calculated gain.
What makes you think there can be an "ideal case" where there are no losses? The fact that your tutor posed the question doesn't automatically make it possible.
Unless there is series inductance, which wasn't mentioned, there is nothing to limit the current. The total charge present has nothing to do with it. Rate of change is what matters. I=dQ/dt.
If there is series inductance, the charge will oscillate indefinitely between capacitors. The...
Here's a thought that might provide some insight: Instead of paralleling another capacitor, move the charged capacitor plates so that the spacing is halved. The net result on capacitance and voltage is the same as the original problem. The capacitance is doubled, the charge is the same, the...
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